If you searched for "CPTE MSK practice questions," "PCE musculoskeletal sample questions," or "CAPR ortho questions," you want the same thing everyone does: real questions you can actually attempt. (The PCE and CPTE are the same national exam — CAPR's Physiotherapy Competency Examination — so these apply whichever term you searched.)
Musculoskeletal is one of the largest content areas on the CPTE, and the questions reward clinical reasoning over recall — recognising an end-feel, a gait compensation, or a red flag, not just defining a term. Below are six MSK questions pulled directly from the CAPR-aligned PhysioExamPrep bank, each with the correct answer and a full rationale.
How to use these: cover the answer, commit to a choice, and explain why the other options are wrong before you reveal it. Read the rationale even when you're right — the reasoning is the transferable skill.
Question 1 — Spinal degeneration
A 65-year-old patient presents with a stiff neck and a grinding sound (crepitus) during rotation. X-rays show decreased disc height and osteophyte formation at multiple levels. Which of the following terms is the most accurate clinical synonym for Spondylosis?
- A. Spinal Osteoarthritis (Degenerative Joint Disease).
- B. Pars Interarticularis fracture.
- C. Inflammatory Spondyloarthropathy.
- D. Disc Herniation with sequestration.
Answer: A — Spinal Osteoarthritis (Degenerative Joint Disease).
Spondylosis is a general term for degenerative changes in the spine, including disc degeneration (DDD) and facet joint OA.
Question 2 — Gait analysis
Observation of gait from the front shows a wide base of support (>10 cm). A wide base is most commonly a compensation for:
- A. Tight adductors.
- B. Excessive strength.
- C. Longer legs.
- D. Balance deficits or cerebellar ataxia.
Answer: D — Balance deficits or cerebellar ataxia.
A wider base increases the center of gravity's stability area, which is a common strategy for patients who feel unstable.
Question 3 — Joint mobilization
A therapist applies a Grade IV mobilization to the ankle. What is the defining characteristic of a Grade IV mobilization?
- A. Large amplitude oscillation.
- B. High velocity thrust.
- C. Small amplitude oscillation performed at the end of the available range (into the resistance).
- D. Sustained stretch.
Answer: C — Small amplitude oscillation performed at the end of the available range (into the resistance).
Grade IV is a small amplitude, end-range oscillation used to increase range of motion by stretching the capsule.
Question 4 — Subjective history (red flags)
A patient mentions that their pain is "unchanged by any position or activity" and persists even at night. How should a therapist interpret pain that is non-mechanical in nature?
- A. It is a "Red Flag" for potentially serious systemic or visceral pathology.
- B. The patient has high irritability.
- C. The patient needs more aggressive stretching.
- D. The patient is exaggerating.
Answer: A — It is a "Red Flag" for potentially serious systemic or visceral pathology.
Mechanical pain should change with load or position. Persistent, non-mechanical pain is a primary indicator of serious conditions like cancer or infection.
Question 5 — Spinal stenosis
A therapist is reviewing a patient's MRI. The report mentions "congenital stenosis" and "ligamentum flavum hypertrophy." How does hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum contribute specifically to spinal stenosis?
- A. It increases the stability of the facet joints, preventing movement.
- B. It calcifies and compresses the anterior longitudinal ligament.
- C. It buckles anteriorly into the spinal canal during lumbar extension.
- D. It pulls the vertebral bodies closer together, reducing disc height.
Answer: C — It buckles anteriorly into the spinal canal during lumbar extension.
When the spine extends, the ligamentum flavum (which forms the posterior wall of the canal) becomes slack and buckles inward, further narrowing the already compromised canal space.
Question 6 — Greater trochanteric pain syndrome
A patient with suspected gluteal tendinopathy is being assessed. The therapist places the hip into passive adduction in neutral hip flexion. Why does passive adduction reproduce pain in patients with GTPS?
- A. It stretches the hip joint capsule posteriorly.
- B. It causes the femoral head to glide anteriorly.
- C. It creates a compressive force of the gluteal tendons against the greater trochanter.
- D. It puts the iliopsoas tendon on maximum tension.
Answer: C — It creates a compressive force of the gluteal tendons against the greater trochanter.
Moving the hip into adduction compresses the gluteal tendons against the bony prominence of the trochanter, which is highly provocative for a tendinopathic tendon.
Keep practising
Six questions is a warm-up. The full PhysioExamPrep bank is CAPR-aligned for the 2026 CPTE and covers every musculoskeletal subtopic — arthrokinematics, special tests, spinal conditions, tendinopathy, gait — with the same answer-and-rationale format. You can start practising for free (a daily allowance of questions, no card required) and track your accuracy by topic. Premium — a one-time CA$49, valid for two years — unlocks unlimited practice, full Written-section mock exams, and Oral-section case practice.